RE: Dividend14 Nov 2021 12:48
Karv
The solvency 2 capital ratio is the total of capital (surplus assets over the best estimate of liabilities) divided by the risk margin. It shows the value of assets over and above that needed to meet the regulatory minimum.
Assets and liabilities are both v large numbers and are assessed against the best estimate.
The best estimate of liabilities is the value generated by using the central actuarial assumptions.
Risk margin (your 5.4bn) is what is needed over the best estimate liability to cover liabilities for an estimated 99.5% of potential outcomes produced by the SII models which are approved by the regulator.
Annuities feature heavily here because investment returns could be lower than assumed when pricing the annuity and people with annuities may live longer than expected.
On the assets side quality of assets is important. Firms like MNG, LGEN, AV using a bespoke SII model, will want to operate at SCR of 160-180%. An SCR around 200% indicates there is headroom to pay out dividends to shareholders, reduce assets by debt retirement and share buy backs.
The quality of assets is an important consideration.
Debt in the form of bonds issued by the company are included
TMTP is an adjustment between previous solvency and solvency 2 requirements and reduces until it is zero in about 10 years time. This is a transitional credit that is not a real asset hence some analysts would exclude this, but annuity companies needed this to survive under SII regime which requires a lot more capital than previous regimes….neither is correct, it is just that SII provides higher levels of guarantee that the company can meet its liabilities.
The 3.3bn present value of future shareholder transfers represents how much the WP fund is worth to the shareholder (£200-250m for the foreseeable future discounted to today). It is a large number extrapolated into the future and discounted back….it is a real asset that the company could sell (at a discount).
Sorry I have forgotten what your q was