Member Info for Daveavt

At least my posts are about the share, yours are all about me. I'd advise spending more of your time talking about the company, as you seem to show more interest in me than it. Now that is a waste of time...

They didn't want to buy at all, hence why it failed, they decided against it. Now they have most likely been forced to.

Or just collected them up and paid the company. End of the day, a market maker could do this, and it's a market maker on the Tr1

And obviously not a private individual, a fund or market maker because there were no tr1s at 1,2 3,4 percent. Straight at 5 which is the minimum requirement for a fund etc. I don't know why people saying it's a 'obligation' to disclose at 3 and every 1 on top. Did you see one at 3, and 4? No. It didn't show because it's a fund /mm.

No it's not Stephen king, because as you just said he previously owned 3 percent, and on the Tr1 it says no previous holdings stated...er, and his name isn't on it for a start...

Market maker... https://www.forexchurch.com/forex-broker-details.cfm?BROKERNAME=ETX%20Capital

Doc, for all you know it's the hedge fund part of company gathering shares through it's market maker side. End of the day they DID declare at 5 percent, so I have no idea why this even matters to you. They declared it, ask them why.

Doc, why is this even relevant? If you think they didn't have to declare until ten percent, why don't you ask them, because they DID declare at 5. Lol.

Because they had completed their purchase. It's non disclosed in the process of purchasing, otherwise you'd have tr1s flying all over the place on the way up. But once completed it has to be declared, it's not like you can have bulks of shares out there and were not allowed to know who owns them.

So no, I wasn't wrong, as 'up to' as you just pointed out is the key word. Sleep well.

Yes exactly, up to. It doesn't say they must disclose at 10, they can disclose at 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 or 10 if they like, and they disclosed at 5 when they finished buying.

Yes, read it, up to ten percent. But they didn't buy ten percent, they bought 5 percent and stopped, so the tr1 is released at the level they stopped at. Night doc!

So we have a failed placing from an actual market maker, now having to legally scoop up the distributed shares it's been forced to purchase, and pay milestone for. You couldn't make this stuff up! What do you think a market maker usually scoops up public shares at the ask price? That's completely the opposite thing they are meant to do lol

Market maker... https://forexrev.org/broker/etx-capital/

Market maker... https://www.forexchurch.com/forex-broker-details.cfm?BROKERNAME=ETX%20Capital

Market maker... https://www.myfxbook.com/en/forex-broker/etx-capital/403

Is this a new tactic, which bit was I wrong about?

Oh and Tony, you say placing funds go to the company, open share ones don't, correct. I'm not sure if you realise, but etx is actually a market maker, so they are collecting the diluted shares themselves that are already out on the market, and can pay milestone directly. They are not buying shares off someone else and the money is going elsewhere...

..trying to scrabble for excuses.? Fact, same amount of shares, no new placing, hedge fund buying at top price on open market, rns released under the radar. Yes that sounds like completely normal behaviour lol

...and if the company doesn't pay for them, where do they go Tony?. You've already diluted the shares...