RE: Factual rebuttal and request for apology16 May 2024 01:22
[Part 2, continued from part 1 below]
Ok, so now let’s look at the process which took place in Sept ’22. The three executive directors exercised some of their employee options and sold the shares in the secondary market. For ease, let’s say the exercise price for all the options was 30p and the shares were sold at 125p….nice round numbers which are 2p or 3p away from the actual prices, ok?
Here's what happens. The directors will ask their Chairman/NEDs for permission to undertake the intended transactions. Provided the Chairman agrees the directors aren’t in a closed period (eg. near the publication of statutory financial reports) and that they don’t possess any inside information which, if published, would be likely to alter the market in the company’s securities then permission is granted. The FD, in this case JH, will contact the company’s broker (Canaccord) to handle the sale of the shares (4.2m shares in this case). On settlement day, Canaccord will either send the cash to two separate PANR company accounts or JH will split the monies when sent by Canaccord to PANR.
Let’s say for ease that JH elected to exercise 1000 options, sold 1000 shares @ 125p and the proceeds were £1250 (forget commissions, etc), ok? The exercise price of the employee options was 30p so £300 (out of the £1250 gross sale proceeds) will be sent to the company’s (treasury) account. The remaining £950 will be sent to the company’s payroll account where JH, as a UK resident, will see the £950 sum treated as income for tax purposes and taxed at, say, 50%. Net, net, net, JH will receive £475 (out of the £1250 gross sale proceeds) in his bank account after this process.
The three directors who exercised options and sold stock (it’s a contemporaneous process, legally and process-wise) collectively reduced their total exposure to PANR by between 9% and 13%. I don’t know about other members of this forum but maintaining an exposure of 87% - 91% of my total exposure to a stock is *not* evidence of directors ceasing to be aligned with the wider shareholder base. I would also not characterise such percentage reductions in exposure as “huge” or “substantial” as our two prolific posters would have us believe.
It’s worth recognising that the net cash percentage which each director eventually saw in their personal bank accounts following this specific event was circa 40% of the headline gross sale proceeds. So that’s the first part of this correction sorted, agreed?
[End of Part 2, see above for Part 3]