RE: Why is it?9 Feb 2021 15:17
Minted “ if the BP total dividend of 0.16 is a steady dividend this would remain my calculation for these shares regardless of future deviations in the SP?”
Apologies if this comes across as slightly patronising, as a maths teacher it unfortunately comes with the territory..
The relevance of any statistical measure is ultimately dependent on the interpretation and purpose of it. So if you want to calculate your yield based purely on purchase price to calculate the profit on your initial investment that is a valid thing to do, but if you are considering reallocation of capital it might make more sense to work out yield as a proportion of current share price so you can decide whether your money would do more for you elsewhere. So it all depends on your reason for wanting to calculate yield in the first place.
Similarly for me, I have 2 concurrent definitions of average purchase price in my head for BP. If I divide the price paid by number of shares I own I get 2.75. But I have dipped in and out over the last month, so if I divide the money O started investing in BP by current number of shares I get 2.33. Now both have their uses for me, in that once we go back above 2.75 I might consider reallocating some funds (or might not), but when it drops down to 2.51 I tell myself that it’s fine, I only really paid 2.33 per share!!