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Long-term RENE investor / first time poster...please excuse if a silly question but have not seen or understand possible explanation for all cohorts showing improvement in the untreated eye (except for the n=1 / 9 month patient). I thought this was treatment for degenerative disease and would therefore expect the opposite?? love to think that this could in some way indicate an indirect efficacy of treatment but guess it doesn't since this would surely be trumpeted massively... an explanation would be great though if someone has the patience... ps. am disappointed there is no more text around what went wrong in the 2 surgical procedures that have somewhat ofuscated these latest results