You'll have to pardon my lack of understanding about it but could the large number of buys/ smaller number of sells and the price actually falling be the result of shorting? Surely if a profit from shorting is to be realised, the shares must actually have to be bought at some point in the process? That might explain how the price fell but the buys outnumbered the sells. I am grateful for any clarification.
Watching a debate on Scottish Independence between deputy SNP Nicola Sturgeon & Labour opposition Johann Lamont-could not understand them as they we trying to talk over each other-they were acting like spoilt kids trying to get their words in. It was embarrassing!, Have a look at PMQ's & you'll understand!,
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