Question8 Jun 2019 13:04
Can someone explain something to me?
So it’s 100-1 consolidation from 0.01p to 1p.
So say for example I have 1,000,000 shares that would mean after consolidation I would have 10,000 shares.
Now if, hypothetically, my shares are worth £3,000 before consolidation at 0.03 does that mean post consolidation I would have 10,000 shares at 3p each or would I have 10,000 at 1p each?
I think what I’m asking is does the consolidation happen in line with the current SP or does it all go to 1p?