RE: Bid Rumours2 Sep 2024 21:53
@Robbren58
If you are really interested here is the short version. When you use a multiple the numerator and denominator should refer to the same basis. Take P/E vs. EV/EBIT. Price refers to Market Cap, so value of the equity and net income is the net income earned by equity holders. EV refers to the entire entity including debt financing, thus EBIT is an appropriate measure, as it is the operating income before interest (before debt holders are paid) so the income to both equity and debt.
Other example Price/Sales does not make sense only EV/Sales, as sales belong to the entirety of the company. If one company has 0 debt and 1000m market cap as well as 500m sales it trades at a Price/Sales of 2 and a EV/Sales of 2. Another company has a 1000m market cap and 2500m in debt. It trades at a Price/Sales of 2 and an EV/Sales of 6. Price Sales does not capture that, although this is very meaningful. This would also reflect on a P/E or EV/EBIT base with the former company being cheaper on each of those measures.
Now free cash flow usually refers to FCFE (free cash to equity). It is also often used as an entity number i.e. in a DCF (FCFF free cash flow to the firm), but if a company talks about free cash flow they usually will refer to operating cash flow - capital expenditure. Since IFRS 16 the rent expense i.e. for a leased building is not reported as an expense anymore, but as depreciation + lease interest in the P&L and lease interest (part of net income/OCF) + repayment of lease liabilities (part of financing cash flow) in the cash flow statement. Thus some people and companies calculate free cash flow still as OCF - Capex, despite the fact that obiously the repayment of lease liabilities (shown in the financing cash flow) should be subtracted.
Easy example you rent a building for 100k a year. You make 200k profit. You have 200k in depreciation of which the depreciation of the lease is 100k and 100k is for machines you bought and own. You spend 120k a year on new machines.
Your free cash flow before IFRS 16 was just the 200k profit + 100k depreciation (without the lease) so 300k in OCF and you spend 120k on capex, thus 180k of free cash flow. With IFRS 16 the OCF is 200k in profit + 200k in depreciation. This is 400k OCF and capex still 120k so 280k in free cash flow. However you will have a new line item that is something i.e. close to 100k repayment of lease liability in the financing cash flow that should be subtracted, thus showing the 180k FCF as well.
If you mix EBIT (a P&L accrual number) with FCF (a cash flow number) you are mixing entity with equity (als long as not FCFF is used). Also EBIT is before taxes whereas FCF is after taxes. What you also get are company specific mix ups i.e. the sale and lease back gain will only show as a 30% profit, yet a 100% cash flow gain. In order to understand cash flow conversion one should look at structural cash flow conversion drivers like ROIC. There is too much noise in things lik