Chris Heminway, Exec-Chair at Time To ACT, explains why now is the right time for the Group to IPO. Watch the video here.
As a novice who has inherited shares, my knowledge of the stock market is zero!I have read all the chat here, but am still relatively in the dark. Can someone explain in the simplest of terms, and what is likely to be the outcome re share price and potential time frame? Many thanks.??????????
Hi all,
I am not au fait with the stock market and have inherited some Cairn shares. I have been reading posts on here, but i'm still unsure as to what the buyback means/implies to shareholders or if/when a proposed special dividend?
Can someone explain in simple jargon what is going to happen, that its effect on the share holders and price. Many thanks.
As a mere novice who uses Equiniti as a platform for buying and selling shares, should I have any concerns rep my investments over the proposed purchase off Equiniti?
Sorry to sound so ignorant!
Found the RNS. I see what you mean. But then they go on to say their aim is to make sure the market price is the same post divi as per divi! *!
Totally confusing. Maybe someone else could help us out here??
For if 22/13 is the new value it would make financial sense to cash them in at £2.06 without the divi?
I’m not sure where you got the 21/ 13 stat from.
I understand you will have the lower no - 2352 shares, but I understood it to mean they will then be worth today’s / Mondays market price - otherwise everyone would be cashing their shares in before close of business on the 8th?? But I am a novice so could be wrong!
This was the purpose of my original post; I cannot see what the benefit is to the shareholder? Then i read this on a previous post, awhich says that Tesco are giving a special dividend. And there example seems to clarify my original interpretation.
https://www.fergusonplc.com/content/dam/ferguson/corporate/investors_and_media/Shareholder-centre/AGM/2018/Ferguson%20plc%20Share%20Consolidation%20illustration%202018.pdf
Hi Benrumpson1. Well that would be wonderful if it's so. And that was the way i originally interpreted it. But then thinking further i figured it can't be that strait forward, otherwise speculators would simply buy shed loads of shares before 7th Jan solely to receive the dividend then sell after its been received?
I may be having another blonde day / or had too much Christmas punch, so am struggling for clarity! :)
As a novice , I am going to sound so dim : but here goes!
Why is the payment to be declared on the 8th & given on the 25th Jan. being classed as a dividend ( and therefore taxable??) and not simply as what it actually is ie; a return of invested funds to the shareholder? As i see it, when we receive our "dividend" that balance will be taken off our shareholding, so negating the transaction and we don't gain anything; and it isn't a dividend.
Can anyone clarify the benefit to the shareholder?