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15:52 was a buy.
If you buy a used car from a dealer there are two clear transactions. One person sells their car to the dealer and another one buys it at a higher price than the seller received, dealer keeps the difference. Share dealing is similar, there`s a price offered to a seller and a price offered to the buyer, in loose terms the spread, with some buyers negotiating a better price than that listed. Dealers manipulate this spread for their own ends so transactions which fall below the mid-point are classed as sells for convenience or buys if above, it`s not definitive. How close the deal price lies to the bid or offer should be a better clue if a "buy" or "sell".
My real name is Mumbo Jumbo so yes thanks a lot of course it helps...Jeez God help us all.
In my opinion, the most likely scenario is "sell" deals placed with market maker and left on the books until a buyer is sourced. Whenever someone "buys" some shares, these orders will be filled with previously placed sell orders. For example, the MM has 1,000,000 shares in his open "sell" orders. Someone then comes along and buys 100,000 and to the buyer this looks like a "buy" trade. However because it is fulfilled from the existing 1,000,000 "sell" order, it shows as a sell. Conversely if someone tries to buy 100,000 and there are no sell orders in place, the MM will fulfil, (if it's not fill or kill order) from the next sell order received from the share. This will show as a "buy".
I could place a sell order today but for a price of 1.50p, but as the live price is 1.28p, it is unlikely to settle, however, it can remain on the books for some time and if the share price rises in future, it may well be fulfilled by someone willing to pay 1.50p. This buyer would see his purchase listed as a sell as my sell deal was placed first.
Hope this helps....