I thought that as well , like BT 5p , BP 0.25 US $ etc.etc. but KCOM did at one stage fall as far as about 8.5 p and I know this for a fact , as I once worked for them and as a member of an additional tax incentive scheme where for £125 a month before tax shares were purchased and extra matching shares were allotted . The basis was something like buy 3 and get 2 matching for free. That price when the dip occurred was not for long but is indeed fact.
Hi I think you are referring to the nominal or "par value" of 10p? You wouldn't actually have bought at that price. You will have paid the "share price" and that will have been more. If want to understand in detail there are good explanations elsewhere if you search on "par value". Apologies if I've misunderstood your question and, if so, by all means ignore my reply!
thanks for the reply. Was really hoping that it would have been more. reason I am saying that is because I bought the shares in about 2000? Ordinary Shares at 10p each. If the shares have come up from 24p in 5 years, they must have been worth 10p in 2004. Can that be the case?
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